Objective Morality – Valid
Posted by RazorsKissJul 26
In the comments to my previous post, I was challenged by Hookflash, who will be quoted from this point on, and annotated as “H“.
H: Even if there are “objective” moral facts, your apprehension of them is subjective (and, thus, prone to error).
The proper response is:
Despite the fact that objective moral facts exist, your apprehension of them is subject to error, and prone to be misinterpreted subjectively, despite their objective status.
From such misapprehensions arise sin – aka “violations of the objective moral standards”.
H: This is why, if you were to ask 10 moral realists to outline their supposedly “objective” moral standards, you’d probably wind up with 10 different standards. 😉
First, that claim lacks specificity. The subject is not “moral realism” – it is “moral objectivism”. What is “real” is another way of saying “what is true”. However, it is not a common conception to all “objective” moral standards, nor are all “objective” moral standards similar, let alone identical.
Thus, by using a non-universal as your universal, you are committing a fallacy of composition. Someone who considers Objectivism to be true, despite the term “Objectivism”, is not akin to a Christian objective moralist, who holds that all truth, all morality, is derived from the person of God. An Objectivist believes that all truth is derived from human reason, and that the primary goal of human morality is to advance self-interest, and self-happiness.
Thus, your statement is no longer universally applicable, as the two are incompatible. By stating something already known as if it is something that is not, you are committing a Fallacy of Exclusion.
We *know* moral realists are not all alike. However, as this is a Christian apologetics blog, assume, always, that I am talking about Christian Objectivism – especially due to my argument above. In Christian Objectivism, the only correct morality is the morality given from God. Misapplications, subjective, or otherwise, are by default, inherently wrong. Truth claims contrary to those given by God are also inherently wrong, and thus, subjective. You are also committing a Broad Definition fallacy, because you are stating what is already said to be excluded from valid truth, as if it is legitimate truth within the system criticized.
Christianity, within it’s basic, necessary premises, says that anything contrary to God’s statements is untrue, regardless of ‘alternate” subjective interpretations. There is one truth, and one truth only. If we are wrong – we are only that – wrong. Only God’s statement on the issue is right.
Whether a hypothetical 10 “moral realists” contradict each other is inconclusive, at best, and irrelevant, at worst. In a logical winnowing of the truth/morality claims, only one is legitimately correct. Plurality has no basis in logical argument.
True/False, not Both.
H: Furthermore, the source one chooses as the basis of their “objective” morality (e.g., the Bible, or the Koran) is chosen subjectively — i.e., you make a decision which is, like all decisions, subjective.
This comes down to your conception of reality, and of the efficacy of logical thought. If things are knowable, and truth can be distinguished from untruth, then the choice is anything but subjective. It is once again, objective. Only one religion can be true, or no religion is true at all. Those are your choices.
Jesus cannot be both God and not-God. This is a logical violation. Christianity, by that simple logical proof, excludes all inclusion in pluralistic thought. Jesus’ claim to deity defies logical inclusion with any religion which denies His deity.
A cannot be both A, and Not-A.
So, we now have Christianity, and every other religion. Islam, for example, thinks Him to be a prophet, but decidedly not God. it cannot be true, while Christianity is also true. The converse is also logically necessary.
Atheism is also incompatible, as a truth claim, with Christianity. A philosophy which states “there is no god” cannot co-exist, pluralistically, with a religion which claims that there is not only a God – but that a specific historical, verifiable person in history was, in fact, God.
It also cannot co-exist with weak atheism, or agnosticism, which says “I have not enough evidence to believe in a God.”
It runs directly into Christianity’s Romans 1:20, which states:
For since the creation of the world His invisible attributes, His eternal power and divine nature, have been clearly seen, being understood through what has been made, so that they are without excuse.
Once again, incompatible.
The choice is made logically, whether you consciously realize it, or not. things are subject to others things until you run out of subjects, yes. To a point. However, Reason is derived from objective principles governing it (logic) – or Reason ceases to be trustworthy. Truth claims are winnowed by logic, and logic by the actual veracity (truth) of logic’s premises.
If you choose which Truth is “correct” the same way you choose which breakfast cereal to buy – you take the process of arriving at, and coming to an understanding of, Truth far too lightly. You don’t “choose” what is true. You arrive at the doorstep of truth via reason, and logic. Reason takes you only so far. Truth is truth, no matter what you choose to consider as true. There is no “Atheism is True for you, but Christianity is True for me”. If A =/= C, (they are by definition antithetical) then A = T and C = T is, by definition, and by logical proof – false. Thus, there can be only one “T” – and only one thing can be correct.
The same thing applies for every claim to truth which differs. There is NO “this truth is correct, and so is this truth – despite the fact that the two “truths” contradict each other. Either one is true, or neither are true. Those are your only options.
Let’s put it another way. If nothing is objectively true – all of the logical proofs above would be meaningless. I could say “A =/= C – yet A = T and C = T are both correct – and this is true for me.” I would be absolutely correct – because there is no objective, absolute, outside-of-myself truth. Unless there is an objective standard to say “No, inequal statements BOTH equaling a third statement is absolutely impossible.” This is not paradox, but impossibility, unless we have an explanation which negates A =/= C. There is no such negation, and there is such a standard (the laws of logic) which says that the above is, indeed, the truth. Contradictory statements just can’t. This is immutable. Absolute. Objective.
Objective Morality holds to the same principle. Morality is a standard defined outside of the person whose behavior being measured against the standard. Morality is NOT a standard defined by the person whose behavior is being measured against the standard. This is subjective morality.
Subjective morality denies “standards” altogether. A standard is a measurement by which the measured are measured BY. The measured do not maintain the standard – or they could move it whenever they wished, willy-nilly. it ceases, at that point, to be a standard. It is then a “personal goal” – which can be adjusted whenever the person in question sees fit.
He is now the only person judged by that standard – and a judge cannot judge himself. In law, a judge would have to recuse himself for a case involving his own personal interests. Do you honestly think moral law is any different? Or do you think a judge should judge himself?
H: You can then stamp your feet and declare vehemently that your source is the objective one, and everyone else is wrong, but the fact remains that you’re using moral standards which are, at bottom, subjectively chosen.
The choice of which objective moral standard which I believe to be logically (and actually) true is not the issue. The issue is whether the standard chosen is itself objective or subjective. That is the question, not whether the choice of which objective standard to choose is subjective. Of course it’s subjective. However, the principles by which we arrive at that choice are objective – unless we are wrong. In which case we’re wrong. However, we are objectively wrong, not subjectively so. Only one objective truth claim is objectively true. If all objective truth claims are compared, only one will be actually true. Several may be logically true – as in, logically valid – but only one will be actually true. The principles of logic are objectively true. Therefore, by objective principles, we choose which objective truth claim has the best claim to be, in fact, true.
The fact that we make a choice may be subjective – but, the process of making it will be objectively valid, or objectively invalid. True, or false. This is objective. With two antithetical truth claims there is either one true claim, or none. Both cannot be true.
H: In short, “objective” morality solves nothing, especially when its supposed objectivity is based entirely on a subjectively-motivated assertion (whether made by a group or an individual).
Does Objective Truth exist? If not, why should I believe you when you say it doesn’t? In that case, my claim that it does is just as valid as yours, since I subjectively defined it myself.
If so, then there is such a thing as a truth undefined by man, and true regardless of what any man thinks, as to it’s truthfulness. Truth may be Atheism, Christianity, or neither. but what we think about it doesn’t have any affect on whether it is, in fact, true.
Thus, either you, or I, or neither are correct. There is no highway option.
The standard is objective. Whether I choose to believe it to be true or not does not affect it’s actual truth one iota. It is either true, or it is not, regardless of my choice to believe it is.
You are mistaking a subjective action for a standard. You are changing subjects, and proclaiming that the Scarecrow hereby defeats the Tinman – when the fight was between the Lion and the Tinman to start with. I could quibble with you about whether the choice actually IS subjective or not – but it’s still irrelevant. it isn’t about the choice. It’s about whether the standard by which morality is defined is mutable, or immutable. Subjective, or Objective.
When and how we choose to believe which is correct has nothing to do with the properties of the standard itself. Unless you deny Objective Truth. In which case I no longer recognize the validity of your claim, state my claim to be lord and master of humankind, and decree that all my subjects shall henceforth be referred to as “Elvis”. Oh, and I’m right. Because I say so.
And there ARE beezelflobbits on Jupiter – and their name is Sam. Just Sam. I’m right then, too.
Subjective morality, just like subjective truth, is self-contradicting. It’s still fun to be 2 years old again sometimes, though.
“That isn’t your toy!”
“MINE!”
“No, it isn’t.”
“MINE!”
2 year olds are inveterate subjectivists. Everything, regardless of the *objective* truth of their claim – is subjectively theirs. They say so, after all.
A logical form modeled by a two-year old doesn’t hold much appeal to me, however.
8 comments
Comment by Hookflash on July 26, 2005 at 6:53 pm
Razor: Let’s clear the slate, as I think you read more into my post than I was actually trying to convey. Here’s what I’d like to know:
1) Can you prove that objective moral facts exists?
2) Can you prove that you are able to properly apprehend these facts through some source?
3) Can you prove that this source is the true source of all objective moral facts?
Bear in mind that “X is unpalatable” is not an argument against X. I fully agree that subjective morality has some unpleasant consequences, but this has no bearing on its truth.
Comment by rev-ed on July 26, 2005 at 9:01 pm
Great discussion.
My favorite analogy is that Fred’s disbelief in God does not cause God to cease to exist for Fred.
Comment by RazorsKiss on July 27, 2005 at 2:17 am
Hookflash:
Your objection was complex, thus my response was complex. You raised many different objections in a short comment, so I “unpacked” the comment as best I could, which required, in my estimation, a separate post. I did so by reducing them to as close to “components” as I could.
I’m going to make a short statement, and I want to see if you agree, before I answer your new set.
My perception of your objections was two-fold, in essence. An argument pro-subjective morality, and an objection that the choice you make, as to which objective morality system to adhere to, was in itself an example of subjective morality.
I disagreed, and attempted to show the logical incoherence of your positions.
That being said … Sure, I’ll clear the slate. I’d rather have had a further response to my rebuttal of your objections, but I can start over, if you want.
I’ll have to get to it later, though. It’s late to start on it, and I want to really think this one through again over a day or so, to get my thoughts in order.
A couple comments, though, while you wait. Subjectivism, as a rule, tends to undercut it’s own assertions. A sliding scale, when used to compare two objects, still has to have the scale itself, by which to measure the two objects in comparison to each other. The fact that it is two objects (apart from the scale itself) being compared does not make it any less a comparison using a scale.
In other words, an attempt to “cut out the middleman” is only an emphasis on the objects, while failing to eliminate the scale by which the objects are compared in relation to each other. The scale of relation still exists, regardless of whether you compare both objects to the scale independently, or take a ‘shortcut” and only give the comparative results. There is no way to measure how they compare, otherwise.
In subjective truth, for example, you make a statement of objective truth, when you claim “there is no objective truth”. that in itself is a positive, objective claim. If you still aver that subjective truth is, in “fact”, true – you have only suceeded in proving that, to you, subjective truth is “true”. However, anyone else is free to claim objective truth is true – and your truth claim has no validity.
If that was even logical. Which it isn’t. Logically, you must either be true, or false. For two opposing claims, ONLY one can be true – they cannot BOTH be true. NEITHER can also be a valid response – but both cannot be true. However, You cannot cut around the question and say that “for me” A = T, without saying that C =T is, in fact, false. if I say that C = T, and A = T, we are faced with a dilemma, which tells us something, logically. EITHER A = T is true, OR C = T is true, OR NEITHER A = T or C = T are true. You have no other options.
The statements “There is no God” and “There is a God” are antithetical – complete opposites. Both cannot be true at the same time. The choices are: A, B, or neither.
Applying that to moral truth:
If we say “man determines truth” – that is a positve truth claim, in regards to morality. It is a claim about moral truth, yet it is stil la truth claim, and still a claim which must be addressed in a logical fashion.
“Man determines moral truth in each situation, as required”
“Humans collectively define moral truth”
“Society defines moral truth”
“Man’s Reason alone determines moral truth”
“Each man determines moral truth independently of every other man”
“God defines Moral Truth”
“God defines Moral Truth in the Bible”
“Thy Word is (Moral) Truth” (Psalms)
“God’s defines Moral Truth independently of man”
“Christian Morals, as defined in the Bible, by God, are true”
Quickie set of moral truth claims, as an example.
Can both be true, and refrain from being mutually exclusive, logically? I don’t think they can. Subjective morality is the one truly antithetical claim to any objective moral system. Subjective morality, furthermore, gives up any right to claim it’s supremacy by it’s own definition. If any truth claim is, in fact, true – then subjective morality is just as true, and just as not-true, as any other truth claim made, in any situation, by any person. It has no claim to say it is itself true exclusively, because it denies exclusive claims by definition.
It denies it’s own premise, unless you finagle in a caveat which says “all things are subjectively morally true EXCEPT that subjective morality is ALWAYS true – this is objectively true.”
This is… bad thinking. At best. Which is why it irks me so much. I don’t think this has anything to do “unpalatable” – it has to do with self-defeating premises, and unsound logical footing. See what I mean?
I just tapped the above out in a few minutes, so forgive any glaring errors. just point them out, and they will be corrected. This is a subject I’ve written pretty extensively on, though, so I think it’s likely going to be basically sound. Two things which contradict each other cannot both be true, by the law of non-contradiction. Unless you are a dialethical logician, of course. Or reject logical laws altogether. Which can happen.
In that, case,though, dialogue isn’t very useful, if we don’t retain a common definition of logic.
Anyway.
That’s just an argument *against* subjective morality/truth, though. A positive argument *for* objective moraliy/truth will be forthcoming. The reason I hesitate is simple: Objective morality is thought, by most, to be axiomatic. Proving an axiom tends to be problematic, at times. I think I can do it, though.
I just need to ponder it a bit.
Comment by Hookflash on July 27, 2005 at 7:04 pm
My point was essentially that, even if objective moral facts do exist, our apprehension of them is subjective. I wasn’t so much denying objective morality outright; rather, I was denying… well, its relevance, I guess. After all, what’s the real difference between a world with objective moral facts and a world without them? In a world with objective moral facts, N-1 standards of morality are wrong (where N is the total number of moral standards), whereas in a world without objective moral facts, N standards of morality are wrong. When N is an extremely large number (which it is), the difference seems rather insignificant, especially when there doesn’t seem to be any way to determine whether or not you’ve found the “correct” moral standard.
The subjectivist would simply answer that he (i.e., his aggregate experiences and intuitions) is the scale, and that the choice to follow a supposedly objective moral standard (from amongst a long list of candidates) would have to refer to this subjective scale. After all, against what do you judge the validity of “objective” scales?
Frankly, I think there are problems with both subjectivism and hardcore objectivism (if you’ve ever argued with a Randroid, you’ll probably agree). People need to realize that some problems may be insoluble, and some truths may be unknowable. Justifying your moral standards could be an example of the former, and determining whether or not there is such a thing as objective morality could be an example of the latter.
Yeah, I’ve heard this critique quite a bit, and it seems pretty devastating. I’m not sure how a “real” subjectivist would answer (if at all), but bear in mind that rejecting moral realism doesn’t necessarily entail a rejection of all objective truth claims.
As for the rest of your post, note that we are both assuming that one can make legitimate moral judgements. But I wonder… Can we? Isn’t it possible that morality is entirely made up, and that all moral judgements which try to refer to objective moral facts are thus false? Does pointing to a supposedly objective source, whether it be the Bible or just the “moral facts” themselves, really solve anything (except in a pragmatic sense)? I think these are the sorts of questions that theists and atheist alike need to take more seriously.
Anyways, I’ve got to run. Gilmore Girls is on, and it’d be downright immoral of me to miss it. 😉
*edited by RK for a quote typo*
Comment by Hookflash on July 27, 2005 at 7:06 pm
Darn it… Razor, are you able to edit comments? The second paragraph in the first blockquote isn’t supposed to be quoted (must’ve been a typo). It was a response to the first paragraph.
Comment by RazorsKiss on July 29, 2005 at 2:14 am
Hookflash:
I have a response to you 3/4 written, and I should get to writing it sometime this weekend, or shortly thereafter.
However, I need some clarification on questions #2 and #3.
I read this as follows: “you can understand these facts by the agency of their source.”
That doesn’t sound right, but that’s the literal reading I get. Is that exactly what you meant? The source of the facts is also the agency by which we understand them?
You use “source” as “origin” in the next question, but you use it as “agency for understanding” in this question. Is this intentional? I don’t mind if it is – I just need to know, for the sake of a fair response.
The agency of transmission of the facts, or the origin of the facts themselves? (for both instances of “source”)
Comment by Hookflash on July 29, 2005 at 8:36 pm
Question 2 should’ve been: Can you prove that you are able to properly apprehend these [moral] facts? I think I may have used the word “source” in this question just to tie it in with the next question, but, in retrospect, it does confuse things a bit.
And question 3 is essentially asking if you can prove that the source of your moral facts (i.e., the part of objective reality in which they reside) is the right source. Basically, I want to know why we should take your source over all the other supposedly objective sources which conflict with your own.
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